[Answered]: GB is a 41-year-old woman (weight 83 kg) with…

GB is a 41-year-old woman (weight 83 kg) with diabetes mellitus whose last A1C (3 months ago) was 11.7%. Her medical history also includes hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and cardiac surgery (three-vessel coronary artery bypass grafting 2 years ago). She has no known drug allergies. GB presents to the ED about 4 days after “popping a pimple” on the back of her neck with increasing pain, streaking erythema down her back, subjective fevers, and weakness. The redness has progressed significantly during the past 12 hours, according to patient report. Vital signs on admission include blood pressure 90-100s/60s mm Hg, temperature 103.1°F (39.5°C), respiratory rate 30 breaths/minute, and heart rate 110 beats/minute (sinus tachycardia). Initial laboratory results also reveal acute kidney injury with an SCr of 3.0 mg/dL (baseline 1.0 mg/dL). GB receives a diagnosis of sepsis (qSOFA score 2 for SBP and RR); she is initially treated with aggressive volume resuscitation and broad-spectrum antibiotics resulting in hemodynamic stability. GB’s wound and blood cultures grow group A streptococci. An incision and drainage procedure is carried out and she is being admitted to the medical floor for care. Which one of the following antimicrobial regimens is best to recommend for GB? Group of answer choices Penicillin 4 million units intravenously every 4 hours plus clindamycin 900 mg intravenously every 8 hours Clindamycin 900 mg intravenously every 8 hours Meropenem 1 g intravenously every 8 hours