[Verified Answer]: Dorothea, a 62-year-old morbidly obese…

Dorothea, a 62-year-old morbidly obese diabetic has acute abdominal pain and appendicitis is suspected. The patient is scheduled for a laparoscopic appendectomy. Upon entry, the surgeon notes that the appendix has ruptured and the surgeon decides to go open. The appendix was removed. The skin and subcutaneous layers of the wound have been left open. The surgeon told the patient that if the wound showed no signs of infec-tion in five days, they would finish the closure. The patient will return to the surgeon’s office later for removal of the skin stitches at their postoperative visit.1. For a laparoscopic surgery, you had thought the surgeon would use an intracorporeal method of ligat-ing the appendix. What would the surgeon have used? What is the difference between intracorporeal and extracorporeal? 2. During the surgical procedure, the surgeon grasps the appendix for removal. The mesoappendix is clamped with hemostats, incised, and a stick tie is used to prevent bleeding. The surgeon then asks for a suture. Why would the surgeon use a purse-string stitch at the base of the appendix? What type of needle will the suture require? After the cultures are completed, the surgeon decides to irrigate. Why? 3. What is the wound classification? Why did the surgeon leave the wound partially open and insert a penrose drain? In its present condition, by what method is the wound expected to heal from the bottom up?4. When is it expected that the surgeon will possibly close the wound if third-intention healing is utilized? How will the surgeon determine if Dorothea’s wound may be closed?