[Answered]: A 70-year-old client on the med/surg unit is…

A 70-year-old client on the med/surg unit is recovering from a right THA 2 days prior. The client is receiving oral opioids and gabapentin for pain. The client is ambulating 3 times per day with the assistance of a walker. The client is receiving apixaban 5mg orally once a day and is preparing for possible discharge tomorrow. The nurse notes the following assessment:Reports unable to ambulate this evening due to chest pain that worsens with deep breaths. Report belching since lunch but believe it was due to overeating. Anxious about pain and restless. Alert and oriented x3.Temp 100 FHR 104 BPMRR 20 bpmBP 114/62 mm HgSpO2 90% on RAIncision dry and intact without redness. R pedal pulse nonpalpable but detected on Doppler. Foot warm and not swollen. Posterior tibial and popliteal pulses +2 bilaterally. Able to flex both feet equally. Cap refill <3 seconds.Post the following on the discussion board with rationales:What information in the summary is concerning?Of the information that is concerning, what is the top priority?What medical care will the nurse anticipate? What nursing interventions will the nurse anticipate?